How to Translate John 3:16 “Literally”

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How do you translate metaphors and images?

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=I7BnHXBfnOg&feature=share

Why are Translations Different, and Can I Trust Them?

When οὔν Doesn’t Mean “Therefore” (John 11:6)

One of the better known conundrums in NT exegesis is Jesus’ response to hearing about Lazarus. “Now Jesus loved (ἠγάπα) Martha and her sister and Lazarus. So (οὖν) when he heard that Lazarus was sick, he stayed where he was two more days.” Jesus loved them, and “therefore” stayed longer (i.e., so Lazarus would die).

Some kind of love, or is it?

Read more of Bill’s blog at: http://zondervanacademic.com/blog/when-%CE%BF%E1%BD%94%CE%BD-doesnt-mean-therefore-john-116-mondays-with-mounce-285/

Translating Every Word (Matt 10:4)

When it comes to particles and conjunctions especially, it can be difficult to translate every single one. Sometimes the best translation is punctuation, and other times it feels like the word is superfluous and should just be dropped in order to write in proper English.

But extreme caution is urged in the case of the latter. There is a reason for every word, even if we don’t understand why it is used.

In Matthew 10 we find the list of the disciples. In v 4 we read, “Simon the Cananaean (Σίμων ὁ Καναναῖος), and Judas Iscariot (καὶ Ἰούδας ὁ Ἰσκαριώτης), who betrayed him (ὁ καὶ παραδοὺς αὐτόν).” ὁ … παραδοὺς αὐτόν is straightforward Greek, a phrase modifying Ἰούδας. But why is καὶ there, and should it be translated?

Yes.

More at: http://zondervanacademic.com/blog/translating-every-word-matt-104-mondays-with-mounce-284/

That Pesky γάρ (Rom 5:6)

By now we should all recognize that γάρ means much more than “for,” and yet so often I hear people complaining that translators don’t always translate γάρ.

Someday we will get away from the simplistic attitude that the connecting tissue in Greek corresponds to words in English. Because of how English views words in sequence, and because of our use of punctuation and paragraphing, we can often convey the meaning of γάρ without using an English word.

http://zondervanacademic.com/blog/that-pesky-%CE%B3%E1%BD%B1%CF%81-rom-56-mondays-with-mounce-280/

When Word-for-Word Is Ambiguous (John 9:7)

~ Mounce

I have been sensitive lately to finding passages in which a word-for-word translation is not clear but is ambiguous and perhaps even misleading. I am finding lots of examples.

The one that jumped out to me this morning is John 9:7. Jesus tells the man born blind, “‘Go, wash in the pool of Siloam [τὴν κολυμβήθραν τοῦ Σιλωάμ]’ (which means Sent [ὃ ἑρμηνεύεται ἀπεσταλμένος]).” The ESV here is traditional and is reflected in the CSB (the new edition of the HCSB), NET, NRSV, and KJV.

So why then does the NIV have “(this word means ‘Sent’)”? The NLT is even more explicit. “(Siloam means ‘sent’).” The answer is clear. To the English reader, “which” does not clarify if “Sent” is a translation of Σιλωάμ or τὴν κολυμβήθραν τοῦ Σιλωάμ. But those who know Hebrew or have access to a biblical dictionary know that the term “Siloam” all by itself means “Sent.” So word-for-word creates a problem that the NIV and NLT don’t.

More at: http://zondervanacademic.com/blog/when-word-for-word-is-ambiguous-john-97-mondays-with-mounce-279/