What Does It Mean That “Those Who Have Suffered In The Flesh Have Ceased From Sin?”

~ Mike Leake

Since therefore Christ suffered in the flesh, arm yourselves with the same way of thinking, for whoever has suffered in the flesh has ceased from sin, –1 Peter 4:1

I’ve suffered in the flesh. My tonsillectomy was painful. So was the recovery. But I still sin. What in the world is Peter talking about here when he says that those who’ve suffered have ceased from sin?

A wrong understanding of this passage could lead to some jacked up asceticism where we beat ourselves and put ourselves in the path of suffering in order to rid ourselves of sinfulness. I’m convinced that’s not what Peter has in mind. But what does he mean? What does he mean by suffering in the flesh? What does he mean by “ceased from sin”?

First, notice the “therefore”. In 3:18-22 Peter outlined the suffering of Christ and how it ultimately led to his victory. So now in response to this we believers should “arm ourselves with the same way of thinking”. In other words, we need to develop a robust theology of suffering and then not be surprised when we have to actually use it.

Suffering is the path to glory. It cleanses the dross. Notice the “for”. This means, “here is why you do this thing”. You do this thing (arm yourselves with a good theology of suffering) because whoever has suffered in the flesh has ceased from sin.

So what does he mean by ceased from sin? There are a few options.

Read more: http://www.mikeleake.net/2019/02/what-does-it-mean-that-those-who-have-suffered-in-the-flesh-have-ceased-from-sin.html